Does anyone know the real reason American TVs don't utilize channel 1?
I've read many conflicting theories.
[TELECOM Digest Editor's Note: I have always heard that Channel 1 was
occupying frequencies used in the VHF-low area (30-50 mc band) and
that *originally* (1940's) some of that spectrum was going to be taken
away from the users of VHF-low band radio and given to television, but
many people protested it, so rather than re-align the television
channels to move Channel 1 a bit further up, the FCC simply abandoned
it for television use. PAT]